Privacy of sense data.
I see dark red where he sees light red.
  We interpose an object between the phys obj. and the seeing subject.
  As we only know about his seeing this sense data by what he shows, we are inclined to say that we don't see his sense datum. Or that we don't know whether we see it.
  Why shouldn't he allways see green when I see red? It would seem that we must admit this possibility. Compare: “Of course we never know whet. new circs wouldn't show that after all he saw what we see.”
  “Can't I imagine all blind people to see.” Cant I imagine Mr W. now seeing & now blind but always behaving as he does? For this seems to be the source for saying that it must make sense. What do we imagine & how does the image give sense to the sentence.
  “Surely what I have he can have”.
↻ “Remember that we admit that the other can have pain without expressing it. So if this is conceivable why not that everybody has constant pain?
  It seems that we must be able to imagine this & that therefore the prop makes sense independent of any expression of pain.
  “As I ˇmyself can see so I can imagine him to do what I do. I can imagine him to play the same role in the act of seeing which I play. How are we to make the substitution.
  “Can't he all along mean something different by ‘[G|g]reen’ that I do? Surely I can imagine that! Surely I know what it is like to have the impression green!” I have at least a private explanation of the word, though this may not be transmittable to anyone else! But is this private explanation an explanation at all? Is it a justification?
  “The sense datum is private
is a rule forbidding e.g. “They had the same different sensedatuma”. It may or may not allow “he guessed that the other had the sense datum so & so.” It may only allow “The other looked at the chair had a sense datum & said . Use?
  “Surely I distinguish between having pain & showing it & showing it without ….
  This can't be merely a matter of using different expressions!?”
  Do we allways distinguish between ‘mere behaviour’ & ‘real experience’?
  You could of course always express yourself in the form of the supposition that the other is no automaton.
  “saying that I ly is justified by a particular experience.”
  Is toothache a behaviour? Is moaning the same as to say “I moan”.

  Our point is only that we can't explain a word by a private experience which can't be shown.
  Moaning isn't a description. Do I talk about L.W. if I say that I have toothache